Am I missing the obvious?
As found on PATA?’s website, the language of the residential density restriction enacted through the referendum is as follows:
Section 1
All land being developed for residential/multi-family purposes that is not currently subject to an approved final plat shall be developed at a density of up to two (2) residential units per acre, multiplied by the number of contiguous acres in the project.
Section 2
This ordinance shall take effect and be in full force from and hereafter the earliest period allowed by law.
As I understand the legal objections by the City, concern with constitutionality stems from concerns with (1) retroactive application, and (2) fair housing laws. However, isn?’t that a matter of interpretation and application?
1. Section 2 clearly states the law is to take effect at the earliest period allowed by law ?– so why not apply the law prospectively and not retroactively and avoid the harm which would be necessary for a party to have standing to file a lawsuit.
2. This ordinance does not appear to prevent apartments and single-family homes. As long as the average number of housing units over the entire property is 2/acre, the plat should comply with the new law. This would allow more green space in developments with smaller lots.
3. If City Council has the power to pass or change existing laws, why can?’t they amend the new law so that it honors the will of the voters but avoids legal controversy?
Again ?– am I missing the obvious? I?’m just trying to understand the issues. David - maybe you can shed some light on these issues?
By Sara
As found on PATA?’s website, the language of the residential density restriction enacted through the referendum is as follows:
Section 1
All land being developed for residential/multi-family purposes that is not currently subject to an approved final plat shall be developed at a density of up to two (2) residential units per acre, multiplied by the number of contiguous acres in the project.
Section 2
This ordinance shall take effect and be in full force from and hereafter the earliest period allowed by law.
As I understand the legal objections by the City, concern with constitutionality stems from concerns with (1) retroactive application, and (2) fair housing laws. However, isn?’t that a matter of interpretation and application?
1. Section 2 clearly states the law is to take effect at the earliest period allowed by law ?– so why not apply the law prospectively and not retroactively and avoid the harm which would be necessary for a party to have standing to file a lawsuit.
2. This ordinance does not appear to prevent apartments and single-family homes. As long as the average number of housing units over the entire property is 2/acre, the plat should comply with the new law. This would allow more green space in developments with smaller lots.
3. If City Council has the power to pass or change existing laws, why can?’t they amend the new law so that it honors the will of the voters but avoids legal controversy?
Again ?– am I missing the obvious? I?’m just trying to understand the issues. David - maybe you can shed some light on these issues?
By Sara